SSC CPO Salary 2022-2023: Candidates who have applied for SSC CPO and want to know the details of SSC CPO Salary 2022-2023? Well, we have arranged all the information regarding SSC CPO Salary in this article. Candidates who are enthusiastically looking for SSC CPO Salary 2022-2023 can check this article thoroughly. This article is to discuss the Sub-Inspector (Exe.) in Delhi Police-Male, Sub-Inspector (Exe.) in Delhi Police-Female, Sub-Inspector (GD) in CAPFs salary. In this article, we have arranged SSC CPO Salary Per Month, SSC CPO Salary Allowances, SSC CPO Job Profile, and SSC CPO Salary after 7th Pay. We appeal to all the candidates to go through the article and understand the SSC CPO Salary Structure.

The SSC CPO Salary Structure has experienced a hike post the 7th pay commission. Interested candidates must be working very hard for the SSC CPO Exam. Read this full article carefully to know about SSC CPO Salary Structure and boost your confidence level.

Overview of the SSC CPO Exam

The SSC Committee holds the SSC CPO Exam every year. Candidates wishing to get government jobs to apply in large numbers. The candidates must download SSC CPO admit card 2021 within the last date. Every year lakhs of applicants show their interest in this exam. The SSC CPO Apply online process is an important step to move forward with the SSC CPO Exam 2022-2023.

SSC CPO Salary Structure 2022-2023

Post the hike through the 7th pay commission, the salary structure has changed. The pay scale is well defined by the SSC Committee for its selected candidates. There are various factors on which the SSC CPO Salary Structure 2022 depends. The SSC CPO Salary structure comprises of the following two main parts.

1. Basic Pay
2. Grade Pay

SSC CPO Salary In Hand

SSC CPO Salary in Hand is the salary that candidates get at the end of the month. The officials have included the basic pay and other allowances to pay the SSC CPO Salary Per Month to the employees. SSC CPO salary in hand will be calculated on the basis of gross salary minus deduction. Hence, the SSC CPO Salary in hand is Rs. 41,231.

What is SSC CPO Basic Salary

SC CPO Basic Pay was increased to 22-24% when 7th Pay Commission was included. For all SSC CPO employees, the basic pay is Rs. 35,400. And the gross salary of SSC CPO is Rs 47,496.

What is Gross Salary of SSC CPO

For working employees, SSC CPO gross pay is of basic pay along with HRA and TA and DA (as applicable). To know more about other allowances for SSC CPO. Check the next coming section.

SSC CPO Salary Allowances

The basic pay of SSC CPO will consider other allowances offered by the government. The pay scale of allowances will be different. These SSC CPO salary allowances will be based on the city where the employees are working. Here are some of the SSC CPO Salary Allowances:

• Home Rental Allowance,
• Dearness on Travel Allowance,
• CGHS,
• Deductions,
• Dearness Allowance,
• Travel Allowance,
• NPS,
• CGEGIS

SSC CPO Job Locations

The selected candidates will be posted in different locations. The salary structure varies as per the job location. However, the job areas are classified by SSC Committee as per the table below.

SSC CPO Salary after 7th Pay Commission

SSC CPO Salary has been changed after 7th Pay Commission. As per SSC CPO, SI will get salary as per pay level 6. Salary of SI and CAPF in Delhi Police will be around Rs 35,400 – Rs 1,12,400, Salary for ASI in CISF will be around Rs. 29,200- Rs. 92,300.

ssc cpo job profile 2022

The youth who like to be a part of Defense Jobs will apply for these posts. It is good to know about SSC CPO Job Profile 2022 before joining the job. As per the convenience of the candidate, we have given SSC CPO Job Profile 2022. We have discussed the job profile for each post. The main duty of SSC CPO is to maintain law and order.

SSC CPO Job Profile for Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police

• Taking responsibility for maintaining law and order

SSC CPO Job Profile for CAPFs

Border Security Forces (BSF)

• Guarding the borders between India and Pakistan
• Help the citizens to sense the security
• Stopping crimes from illegal refugees and borders

CRPF

• Taking charge of controlling the riots and Naxalites

ITBP

• Guarding the borders between India & China (from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh)
• Allotting the security at the northern borders which are closed to Pakistan and China
• Avoiding all the violations from the borders
• Keeping safe from all smuggling, anti-national activities, and illegal immigration all over the border

SSB

• Guarding the Indo – Nepal, and Indo – Bhutan borders
• Stopping all the cross-border crimes, smuggling, and other anti-national activities

CISF

• Safeguarding all the government-oriented buildings, PSU, and other infrastructures related to the government
• Being a shield to all the Government infrastructure projects and industrial places
  Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police must maintain law and order in Delhi

SSC CPO Promotion and benefits

Candidates who qualify SSC CPO exam will get job in CRPF, SSB, CISF, Delhi Police and ITBPF. On the basis of the candidates joining the division, there will be job profile.
Whatever the qualifications, the ultimate task is to maintain law and order in the defense sector and across the country. These tasks will be accomplished only with patience and strength. As per the government norms along with 7th Pay Commission, SSC CPO Salary will be increased. SSC CPO promotion promotion list will be given in given points.

• It takes at least 7-8 years for an assistant sub-inspector to get his first promotion
• A sub-inspector becomes an inspector after 15-18 years, and at least 12-15 years to get the rank of ACP
• An SI in CAPFs has to clear a written test for promotion

SSC CPO Career Growth 2022

The candidates selected for the post will get the opportunity to participate in the internal exams conducted by SSC in their respective divisions. Candidates should work hard with full determination and patience in their job. The candidates will be promoted to higher posts like Assistant Sub Inspector, Inspector based on their experience and work performance. They must note that the job profile will differ based on the division they joined.

Candidates who will be appearing for the SSC CPO recruitment should prepare well for the exam. Also, they should check the SSC CPO Salary Package before applying for the post to avoid any confusion in the future. The selected candidates will be offered lucrative SSC CPO salaries and additional allowances with immense career growth.

Assam Direct Recruitment Important Instructions – The State Level Recruitment Commission has announced the dates of the written examination for 26441 Class III and IV posts. Please note that the following instructions have been collected from the admit cards of Class III and IV posts. Please read carefully which will definitely help you understand the instructions better. For more AllJobAssam.com, please visit Assam Job Alert regularly.

Assam Direct Recruitment Exam Important Instructions | গুৰুত্বপূৰ্ণ নিৰ্দেশনাৱলী সমূহ

• No candidate will be allowed to appear in the Examination Hall without the Admit Card and it should be produced in front of the Invigilator on being asked. (কোনো প্ৰাৰ্থীক এডমিট কাৰ্ড অবিহনে পৰীক্ষা গৃহত উপস্থিত হ’বলৈ অনুমতি দিয়া নহ’ব আৰু সুধিলে ইয়াক ইনভিজিলেটৰৰ সন্মুখত প্ৰস্তুত কৰিব লাগে।)
• Each candidate is required to bring at least one photo ID issued by the government authorities to match the photograph with the name. (প্ৰতিজন প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে নামটোৰ সৈতে ফটোখন মিলাবলৈ চৰকাৰী কৰ্তৃপক্ষই জাৰী কৰা কমেও এখন ফটো পৰিচয় পত্ৰ ল’ব লাগিব।)
• No candidate shall be allowed to enter or leave the examination hall during the examination unless directed to do so. (পৰীক্ষাৰ সময়ত কোনো প্ৰাৰ্থীক পৰীক্ষা গৃহত প্ৰৱেশ বা ওলাই যাবলৈ অনুমতি দিয়া নহ’ব যদিহে এনে কৰিবলৈ নিৰ্দেশ দিয়া নহয়। )
• No books, papers, cell phones, calculators or any electronic gadgets or objectionable materials are allowed in the examination hall. Candidates are allowed to bring only admit cards, ball-point pens, photo identity cards and credit/debit cards in/inside the examination hall. There will be no provision for storage of mobile phones/electronic items etc. Candidates are directed not to bring any prohibited items with them. (পৰীক্ষা গৃহত যিকোনো কিতাপ, কাগজ, চেল ফোন, কেলকুলেটৰ বা যিকোনো ইলেক্ট্ৰনিক গেজেট বা আপত্তিজনক সামগ্ৰী অনুমোদিত নহয়। প্ৰাৰ্থীসকলক পৰীক্ষা গৃহৰ ভিতৰত/ভিতৰলৈ কেৱল এডমিট কাৰ্ড, বল-পইণ্ট পেন, ফটো পৰিচয় পত্ৰ আৰু ক্ৰেডিট/ডেবিট কাৰ্ড আনিবলৈ অনুমতি দিয়া হয়। ম’বাইল ফোন/ইলেক্ট্ৰনিক সামগ্ৰী আদি জমা কৰাৰ বাবে কোনো ব্যৱস্থা নাথাকিব। প্ৰাৰ্থীক তেওঁৰ লগত কোনো নিষিদ্ধ সামগ্ৰী অনা ৰখাৰ নিৰ্দেশ দিয়া হৈছে।)
• Candidates shall keep all their belongings and supplies outside the examination hall at their own risk. (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে তেওঁৰ সকলো সামগ্ৰী আৰু সামগ্ৰী পৰীক্ষা গৃহৰ বাহিৰত নিজৰ বিপদাশংকাত ৰাখিব লাগিব।)
• Any candidate who uses unfair means or violates the above or any of the examination rules will be disqualified and action will be taken as per the rules. (অন্যায় উপায় ব্যৱহাৰ কৰা বা ওপৰোক্ত বা যিকোনো পৰীক্ষানিয়ম উলংঘা কৰা যিকোনো প্ৰাৰ্থীক অযোগ্য ঘোষণা কৰা হ’ব আৰু নিয়ম অনুসৰি ব্যৱস্থা লোৱা হ’ব।)
• Only the candidate should clearly write his roll number in the space provided in the question booklet. (কেৱল প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাত প্ৰদান কৰা স্থানত প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে স্পষ্টভাৱে তেওঁৰ ৰোল নম্বৰ লিখিব লাগিব ।)
• Read the question carefully before marking the correct answer in the appropriate circle/bubble on the OMR answer sheet. (ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাৰ উপযুক্ত বৃত্ত/বুদবুদত সঠিক উত্তৰ চিহ্নিত কৰাৰ আগতে প্ৰশ্নটো মনোযোগেৰে পঢ়ক।)
• Only one circle either (A), (B), (C) or (D) must be marked in full for each answer on the OMR answer sheet. (ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাৰ প্ৰতিটো উত্তৰৰ বাবে কেৱল এটা বৃত্ত হয় (এ), (বি), (চি) বা (ডি) সম্পূৰ্ণৰূপে চিহ্নিত কৰিব লাগিব।)
• Candidates are not required to put any misleading marks in the OMR answer sheet (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত কোনো বিপথগামী চিহ্ন দিব নালাগে)
• Candidates should not staple, fold, pin, bend or damage the OMR answer sheet. (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাখন ষ্টেপল, ভাঁজ, পিন, কুঞ্চন বা ক্ষতি কৰিব নালাগে।)
• Scratching, overwriting, tick marking, multiple answers will be considered incorrect answers. (স্ক্ৰেচিং, অভাৰৰাইটিং, টিক মাৰ্কিং, একাধিক উত্তৰ ক ভুল উত্তৰ হিচাপে গণ্য কৰা হ’ব।)
• Candidates have to sign twice. Once on the attendance/roll sheet presented by the invigilator on duty after taking seat in the examination hall, and the other, on completion of the examination while handing over their question booklet and OMR answer sheet to the invigilator. In cases where a candidate has not signed and OMR has not submitted the answer sheet and question booklet after the conclusion of the examination, he will be considered absent.. (প্ৰাৰ্থীসকলে দুবাৰ স্বাক্ষৰ কৰিব লাগিব। এবাৰ পৰীক্ষা গৃহত আসন গ্ৰহণ কৰাৰ পিছত কৰ্তব্যৰত ইনভিজিলেটৰে উপস্থাপন কৰা উপস্থিতি/ৰোল শ্বীটত, আৰু আনটো, পৰীক্ষা সম্পূৰ্ণ হোৱাৰ পিছত তেওঁলোকৰ প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা আৰু ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ পত্ৰিকা ইনভিজিলেটৰক হস্তান্তৰ কৰাৰ সময়ত। যিবোৰ ক্ষেত্ৰত প্ৰাৰ্থী এজনে স্বাক্ষৰ কৰা নাই আৰু পৰীক্ষা সমাপ্ত হোৱাৰ পিছত ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ পত্ৰিকা আৰু প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা দাখিল কৰা নাই, তেওঁক অনুপস্থিত বুলি গণ্য কৰা হ’ব। )
• Candidates should do all necessary rough work on the question booklet in the space provided. Rough work should not be done on the answer sheet or any other paper. If any rough work is done on the answer sheet, the answer sheet will not be evaluated. (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে প্ৰদান কৰা স্থানত প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাৰ ওপৰত সকলো প্ৰয়োজনীয় ৰুক্ষ কাম কৰিব লাগে। উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকা বা আন কোনো কাকতত ৰুক্ষ কাম কৰিব নালাগে। যদি উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত কোনো ৰুক্ষ কাম কৰা হয়, উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকামূল্যায়ন কৰা নহ’ব।)
• There will be a single OMR answer sheet with pre printed roll number and photograph for all questions. No additional answer sheet will be issued for any mistake or correction. Candidates must ensure that this is his/her only before use. (সকলো প্ৰশ্নৰ বাবে পূৰ্ব প্ৰিণ্ট কৰা ৰোল নম্বৰ আৰু ফটোৰ সৈতে এটা একক ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকা থাকিব। কোনো ভুল বা সংশোধনৰ বাবে কোনো অতিৰিক্ত উত্তৰ-পত্ৰ প্ৰদান কৰা নহ’ব। ব্যৱহাৰৰ আগতে প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে নিশ্চিত কৰিব লাগিব যে এইটো কেৱল তেওঁৰ।)
• OMR answer sheet will be issued along with the question booklet. Candidates are required to fill in the details in the OMR answer sheet, ie Question Book No., Question Book Code etc. carefully. (প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাৰ সৈতে ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকা প্ৰদান কৰা হ’ব। প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে ও.এম.আৰ. উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকা, অৰ্থাৎ প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা নং, প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা কোড আদিত বিৱৰণবোৰ সাৱধানে পূৰণ কৰিব লাগিব। )
• For Grade III
  • The test is of 2 hours duration and will consist of 100 questions.(পৰীক্ষাটো 2 ঘণ্টা ম্যাদৰ আৰু ইয়াত 100 টা প্ৰশ্ন থাকিব। )
  • Question Booklet will consist of 100 Multiple-choice Type questions (MCQs), all carrying 1.75 (প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাত 100 টা মাল্টিপল-চয়েছ টাইপ প্ৰশ্ন (এমচিকিউ) থাকিব আৰু প্ৰতিটো প্ৰশ্নই 1.75 নম্বৰ বহন কৰিব।)
• For Grade IV
  • The test is of 2 hours duration and will consist of 135 questions.(পৰীক্ষাটো 2 ঘণ্টা ম্যাদৰ আৰু ইয়াত 135 টা প্ৰশ্ন থাকিব। )
  • Question Booklet will consist of 135 Multiple-choice Type questions (MCQs), all carrying 1 (প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাত 135 টা মাল্টিপল-চয়েছ টাইপ প্ৰশ্ন (এমচিকিউ) থাকিব, আৰু প্ৰতিটো প্ৰশ্নই 1 নম্বৰ বহন কৰিব।)
• Candidates need to use blue/black ball-point pen only for writing details on this page/marking responses on the OMR answer sheet. (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে কেৱল এই পৃষ্ঠাত বিৱৰণ লিখিবলৈ/ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত সঁহাৰি চিহ্নিত কৰাৰ বাবে নীলা/ক’লা বল-পইণ্ট পেন ব্যৱহাৰ কৰিব লাগিব।)
• The candidate has to ensure that the corresponding question booklet code is written/shaded correctly by him/her in the OMR answer sheet. For example, if the candidate gets the question booklet code ‘A’, he/she should enter ‘A’ in the box provided in the OMR answer sheet. must be filled in and also shaded circle ‘A’ on the OMR Answer Sheet. In case of any irregularity in the question booklet, the candidate must inform the Invigilator for immediate change of the subject. (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে নিশ্চিত কৰিব লাগিব যে সংশ্লিষ্ট প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা কোডটো তেওঁৰ/তাইৰ দ্বাৰা ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত সঠিকভাৱে লিখা/শ্বেড কৰা হৈছে। উদাহৰণ স্বৰূপে, যদি প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকা কোড ‘এ’ পায়, তেন্তে তেওঁ ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত প্ৰদান কৰা বাকচটোত ‘এ’ পূৰণ কৰিব লাগিব আৰু লগতে ওএমআৰ উত্তৰ-পত্ৰিকাত বৃত্ত ‘এ’ ছাঁ দিব লাগিব। প্ৰশ্ন পুস্তিকাত কোনো বিসংগতি ৰখাৰ ক্ষেত্ৰত, প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে বিষয়টো তৎক্ষণাৎ সলনি কৰাৰ বাবে ইনভিজিলেটৰক জনাব লাগিব।)
• (There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.  (ভুল উত্তৰৰ বাবে কোনো ঋণাত্মক নম্বৰ নাই।)
• Candidates should note that each question is given in multilingual form, e.g., Assamese/Bengali/Baro/English/Hindi. In case of any error or confusion in the medium/version, the English version will be considered as the authentic version (প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে মন কৰিব লাগিব যে প্ৰতিটো প্ৰশ্ন বহুভাষিক ৰূপত দিয়া হয়, যেনে, অসমীয়া/ বাংলা/বড়ো/ইংৰাজী/হিন্দী। মাধ্যম/সংস্কৰণত কোনো বিসংগতি বা বিভ্ৰান্তিৰ ক্ষেত্ৰত, ইংৰাজী সংস্কৰণটো প্ৰামাণিক সংস্কৰণ হিচাপে গণ্য কৰা হ’ব। )
• If the OMR sheet received is found to be torn/damaged, the candidate should report immediately. (যদি প্ৰাপ্ত ওএমআৰ শ্বীটখন ফাটি যোৱা/ক্ষতিগ্ৰস্ত হোৱা দেখা যায় তেনেহ’লে প্ৰাৰ্থীয়ে লগে লগে প্ৰতিবেদন দিব লাগিব।)

Assam Direct Recruitment Exam Details:

Name of the Commission: State Level Recruitment Commission(SLRC)

Name of the Exam: Grade III & Grade IV

• No of Grade III posts: 13,141  posts
• No of Grade IV posts: 13,300  posts

Type of exam: Written test [Multiple-choice Type questions (MCQs)]

Duration of Exam: 2 Hours

Total Marks: 100

Number of Question:

• For Grade III: 100
• For Grade IV: 135

Date of exam for Grade III Posts: 28th August, 2022

Date of exam for Grade IV Posts: 21st August, 2022 

Important Link for Assam Direct Recruitment Exam

Direct Recruitment Grade III English Questions and Answers PDF : Candidates who had applied for Direct Recruitment Grade III vacancies, must check this page. We have provided Direct Recruitment Grade III English Questions and Answers  in this article. Also, we provided the Direct Recruitment Grade III English Mock Test Question And Answers. So all the applied aspirants take the Direct Recruitment Grade III English Online Test and get to know the expertise you have in their respective areas of interest.

Direct Recruitment Grade 3 English Free Mock Test Q&A

Directions (Q. 1 – 8): Choose the Synonyms of the following words.

1. Jovial

A. Incredulous
B. Merry
C. Revolting
D. Dizzy

Answer – B. Merry

2. Temerity

A. Audacity
B. Fearfulness
C. Shyness
D. Stupidity

Answer – A. Audacity

3. Upright

A. Honorable
B. Horizontal
C. Humble
D. Supine

Answer – A. Honorable

4. Adversity

A. Failure
B. Helplessness
C. Misfortune
D. Crisis

Answer – C. Misfortune

5. Louche

A. Gauche
B. Fine
C. Brilliant
D. Indecent

Answer – D. Indecent

6. Inebriate

A. Dreamy
B. Stupefied
C. Unsteady
D. Drunken

Answer – D. Drunken

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7. Extricate

A. Pull
B. Free
C. Tie
D. Complicate

Answer – B. Free

8. Epitomize

A. Disappoint
B. Distend
C. Exemplify
D. Generate

Answer – C. Exemplify

Directions (Q. 9 – 15): Choose the Antonyms of the following words.

9. Assuagement

A. Distress
B. Composure
C. Comfort
D. Disturbance

Answer – A. Distress

10. Mellifluous

A. Harmonious
B. Pitchable
C. Discordant
D. Internal

Answer – C. Discordant

11. Perturbed

A. Controllable
B. Composed
C. Worried
D. Decided

Answer – B. Composed

12. Stealth

A. Overtness
B. Implication
C. Covertness
D. Explanation

Answer – A. Overtness

13. Exodus

A. Influx
B. Homecoming
C. Return
D. Restoration

Answer – A. Influx

14. Virtuous

A. Scandalous
B. Wicked
C. Corrupt
D. Vicious

Answer – B. Wicked

15. Hypocritical

A. Gentle
B. Dependable
C. Sincere
D. Amiable

Answer – C. Sincere

Directions (Q. 16 – 20): Fill in the Blanks. Choose the exact words which correctly suits in the blanks and gives a meaningful sentence.

16. Even though our heritage is a rich mix, we cannot ignore the fact that the roots of our spirituality come from _________ philosophical thoughts we have inherited, mostly from Vedic _____________

A. taciturn, intimidating
B. comprehensibility, intentions
C. convention, formidable
D. refined, traditions

Answer – D. refined, traditions

Explanation:
Refined – with impurities or unwanted elements having been removed by processing.
Traditions – the transmission of customs or beliefs from generation to generation, or the fact of being passed on in this way.

17. We are now trying to repurpose that suitcase, so that it can also enable the diagnosis of_____________fever and tuberculosis, further revolutionizing disease_____________in poor and rural communities.

A. typhoid, surveillance
B. detract, durable
C. utter, inactive
D. diminish, lethargic

Answer – A. typhoid, surveillance

Explanation:
Typhoid – an infectious bacterial fever with an eruption of red spots on the chest and abdomen and severe intestinal irritation.
Surveillance – close observation, especially of a suspected spy or criminal.

18. This is even truer on the benefits side of the _______, where the assumptions __________ not only how to measure returns, but what counts as a return in the first place.

A. accomplished, surrounded
B. equation, concern
C. unspecific, central
D. vague, intramural

Answer – B. equation, concern

Explanation:
Equation – a statement that the values of two mathematical expressions.
Concern – related to

19. As before, the fact that multiple studies of the demographics of crime suggest that immigrants are less likely to commit crimes than native-born Americans has not____________him from making such____________proposals.

A. persuaded, patient
B. instigated, tolerant
C. deterred, xenophobic
D. obstructed, disdainful

Answer – C. deterred, xenophobic

Explanation:
Deter – discourage someone
Xenophobic – having or showing a dislike

20. In essence, the law of office of profit was introduced to end the_______between the duty of a member of the_______ towards the House and public and his personal interest.

A. conflict, legislature
B. agreement, diffusion
C. peace, dissemination
D. concord, dispersion

Answer – A. conflict, legislature

Explanation:
Conflict – a serious disagreement.
Legislature – the legislative body of a country or state.

Directions (Q. 21 – 25): Spelling Correction

21. Which of the following spelling incorrect in the given context?

A. Cage
B. Arena
C. Veneal
D. Cloakroom

Answer – C. Veneal

Explanation:
The correct spelling is “Venial”

22. Which of the following spelling incorrect in the given context?

A. Neonatal
B. Widespread
C. Predominant
D. Mainstrem

Answer – D. Mainstrem

Explanation:
The correct spelling of the word is “Mainstream”

23. Which of the following spelling incorrect in the given context?

A. Finicky
B. Intigriety
C. Persnickety
D. Scrupulous

Answer – B. Intigriety

Explanation:
The correct spelling of the word is “Integrity”

24. Which of the following spelling incorrect in the given context?

A. Plaguied
B. Invigorating
C. Rejuvenated
D. Braced

Answer – A. Plaguied

Explanation:
The correct spelling of the word is “Plagued”

25. Which of the following spelling incorrect in the given context?

A. Raft
B. Array
C. Conglomeration
D. Assemblege

Answer – D. Assemblege

Explanation:
The correct spelling of the word is “Assemblage”

Directions (Q. 26 – 30): Spotting Errors. Choose the phase with an error.

26. Socrates, whom was called for questioning after sustained / accusations on social media of corrupting / youth, is reportedly frustrating / investigators with oblique answers.

A. Socrates, whom was called for questioning after sustained
B. accusations on social media of corrupting
C. youth is reportedly frustrating
D. investigators with oblique answers.

Answer – A. Socrates, who was called for questioning after sustained

Explanation:
Replace “whom” with “who”

27. The external rituals of religion are / of secondary importance but / the spiritual essence of religions / needs to be accepted.

A. The external rituals of religion are
B. of secondary importance but
C. the spiritual essence of religions
D. needs to be accepted.

Answer – A. The external rituals of religion are

Explanation:
it should be “religions” instead of “religion”.

28. Essentially anti-caste Buddhist societies / had stressed nursing and taking care / of the infirm, and Ashoka edicts ordered / the building of hospitals along trade routes.

A. Essentially anti-caste Buddhist societies
B. had stressed nursing and taking care
C. of the infirm, and Ashoka edicts ordered
D. the building of hospitals along trade routes.

Answer – C. of the infirm, and Ashoka edicts ordered

Explanation:
it should be “Ashoka’s” instead of “Ashoka”

29. In the name of revamping the law, investigation / and trial should not be alter in a way / that undermines the principles on which / the justice system was founded.

A. In the name of revamping the law, investigation
B. and trial should not be altered in a way
C. that undermines the principles on which
D. the justice system was founded.

Answer – B., and trial should not be altered in a way

Explanation:
Replace “alter” with “altered”

30. It must be emphasized, however, that replacing a / natural forest with a plantation does not really serve / the cause of nature, wildlife, or the forest-dwelling communities / who depend on it, because of the sheer loss of biodiversity.

A. It must be emphasized, however, that replacing a
B. natural forest with a plantation does not really serve
C. the cause of nature, wildlife, or the forest-dwelling communities
D. who depend on it, because of the sheer loss of biodiversity.

Answer – B. natural forest with a plantation does not really serve

Explanation:
Replace “an” with “a”

IBPS Mains PO English Question And Answers | Online Test

Direction (1-5): In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In the first column, sentences/phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.

1)

A) A-D, B-F

B) B-F, C-D

C) B-E, C-F

D) A-F, B-D

E) None of these

Answer – C

2)

A) A-D, B-F

B) B-E, C-D

C) A-E, C-F

D) A-F, B-D

E) None of these

Answer – A

3)

A) A-D, B-E

B) B-F, C-D

C) B-D, C-F

D) A-F, B-E

E) None of these

Answer – C

4)

A) A-D, B-E

B) B-F, C-0044

C) B-E, C-F

D) A-F, B-D

E) None of these

Answer – B

5)

A) A-D, B-E

B) B-F, C-D

C) B-E, C-F

D) A-F, B-D

E) None of these

Answer – D

Direction (6-10): From the options given below, select the option which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

6) a) While the microplastics measured in that samples were considerably higher, with an average of 24,600 particles per 34 ounces, the study concluded that the amount found in the Arctic is still substantial and shows significant atmospheric contamination.

b) And this means the atmosphere may be a key source of exposure for humans and animals.

c) The new study drives home the reality of microplastics traveling in the atmosphere, said Jennifer Provencher, head of the wildlife health unit for the Canadian Wildlife Service who studies the impacts of plastics in Arctic ecosystems and was not involved with the study.

d) The message I’m often trying to communicate with people, specifically people who live in the middle of the continent away from a large water body, is that there’s so much information about, you know, garbage patches and turtles with straws up their nose, all of that stuff, that people think that plastic pollution is a middle-of-the-ocean problem

A) Both a and d are incorrect

B) Both a and c are incorrect

C) All sentences are correct

D) Both b and d are incorrect

E) All are incorrect

Answer – A

7) a) A joint investigation by BuzzFeed News, the investigative journalism website Bellingcat, and Russian news site the Insider has established that Savoini, a longtime aide to Deputy Prime Minister Matteo Salvini, flew to Moscow on three separate occasions in the seven weeks running up to the crucial meeting at the Metropol Hotel in October at which the proposed covert oil deal was discussed.

b) Salvini did not attend the Metropol meeting, which took place Oct. 18, but he was in Moscow at the time.

c) Gianluca Savoini, the political operative the center of the storm over a secret plan to fund the far-right party of Italy’s deputy prime minister with Russian oil money, shuttled back and forth to Moscow on multiple mysterious trips last year that raise fresh questions about his links to Russia and the true purpose of his visits.

d) He has consistently refused to answer questions about whether he knew the meeting was taking place or was aware of the proposed oil deal.

A) Both a and d are correct

B) Both a and c are incorrect

C) All sentences are correct

D) Both b and d are incorrect

E) All are incorrect

Answer – A

8) a) The revelation will ratchet down pressure on Salvini to answer questions about what he knew about the Moscow negotiation.

b) The data comes from analysis of Savoini’s and D’Amico’s flight booking records, cross-referenced with their social media activity.

c) It reveals that Savoini has made an extraordinary number of trips to Russia over the last five years, with at least 14 visits in 2018 alone and a further three in the first three months of this year.

d) It is not known who paid for the flights, whom Savoini met when he was in Moscow, or whether Salvini knew about the visits.

A) Both a and d are correct

B) Both a and c are incorrect

C) All sentences are correct

D) Both b and d are incorrect

E) All are incorrect

Answer – B

9) a) Israel has decided to deny entry to Democratic congresswomen, Reps. Rashida Tlaib and Ilhan Omar, ahead of a planned trip to Jerusalem and the West Bank.

b) Shortly before the decision was made public, US President Donald Trump put pressure on Israel into barring Tlaib and Omar, saying that allowing them to visit would “show great weakness” on Israel’s behalf.

c) The congresswomen, critical of Israel’s treatment of Palestinians, were due to arrive for their trip Sunday.

d) Last month they both voted against a House resolution condemning the boycott movement, officially known as the Boycott, Divest and Sanctions movement. The resolution passed with strong bipartisan support.

A) Both a and d are correct

B) Both a and c are incorrect

C) All sentences are correct

D) Both b and d are incorrect

E) All are incorrect

Answer – C

10) a) Tlaib and Omar, the first two Muslim women elected to Congress, was due to attend a private trip set up by a nonprofit organization led by a Palestinian lawmaker.

b) They planned to visit several cities in the West Bank, where Tlaib also has family members and Israeli-annexed East Jerusalem.

c) In a statement, the Democratic Majority for Israel, a pro-Israel lobby group, condemned the decision by Israel’s government.

d) “While we disagree strongly with the anti-Israel, and in some instances anti-Semitic, views articulated by Congresswomen Tlaib and Omar, and while we were disturbed to learn that their planned itinerary was completely unbalanced, there is simply no excuse for any country, including Israel, to prevent travel by elected officials of the United States,” the statement said.

A) Both a and d are correct

B) Both a and c are incorrect

C) All sentences are correct

D) Both b and d are incorrect

E) All are incorrect

Answer – B

Direction (11-15): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

There is a considerable amount of research about the factors that make a company innovate. So is it possible to create an environment ____ (I) to innovation? This is a particularly pertinent _____ (II) for India today. Massive problems in health, education, etc. ____ (III) be solved using a conventional approach but _____ (IV) creative and innovative solutions that can ensure radical change and _____ (V). There are several factors in India’s _____ (VI). Few countries have the rich diversity that India or its large, young population _____ (VII). While these _____ (VIII) innovation policy interventions certain additional steps are also required. These include _____ (IX) investment in research and development by _____ (X) the government and the private sector, easy transfer of technology from the academic world, etc. To fulfill its promise of being prosperous and to be at the forefront, India must be innovative.

11) – I
A)stimuli

B) conducive

C)incentive

D) facilitated

E) impetus

Answer – B

12) – III

A) objective

B) controversy

C) doubt

D) question

E) inference

Answer – D

13) – III
A) cannot

B) possibly

C) should

D) never

E) must

Answer – A

14) – VI
A) necessary

B) apply

C) need

D) consider

E) requires

Answer – E

15) – IX
A) quantity

B) advantages

C) increase

D) chaos

E) growth

Answer – E

Direction (16-20): In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicized and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, the option ‘D’ is the answer.

16) The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.

A) hell-bent on getting

B) hell-bent for getting

C) hell-bent upon getting

D) No improvement

Answer – C

17) When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

A) into crushing

B) in crushing

C) without crushing

D) No improvement

Answer – B

18) If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bedtime.

A) If the room was brighter

B) If the room are brighter

C) Had the room been brighter

D) No improvement

Answer – C

19) Will you kindly open the knot?

A) untie

B) break

C) loose

D)No improvement

Answer – A

20) The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge. then Viceroy of India shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.

A) improved

B) broken

C) bettered

D)No improvement

Answer – B

Direction (21-25): In the following, the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

21) CORPULENT

A) Lean

B) Gaunt

C) Emaciated

D) Obese

Answer – D

22) BRIEF

A) Limited

B) Small

C) Little

D) Short

Answer – D

23) VENT

A) Opening

B) Stodge

C) End

D) The past tense of go

Answer – A

24) CANNY

A) Obstinate

B) Handsome

C) Clever

D) Stout

Answer – C

25) ALERT

A) Energetic

B) Observant

C) Intelligent

D) Watchful

Answer – D

Direction (26-28): I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights snapped into and out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up into a command module. Even after the fiery re-entry splashing down in 81o water in south pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the command module.

26) The word ‘Command Module’ used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it deals with

A) an alarming journey

B) a commanding situation

C) a journey into outer space

D) a frightful battle

Answer – C

27) Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for the warning lights to be on?

A) There was a shower of debris.

B) Jack was yelling.

C) A catastrophe was imminent.

D) The moon was looming close and big.

Answer – C

28) The statement that the dazzling sunshine was “for once unfiltered by layers of air” means

A) that the sun was very hot

B) that there was no strong wind

C) that the air was unpolluted

D) none of the above

Answer – D

Direction (29-33): Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) ‘None of these’ will be the answer.

29) To make a clean breast of

A) To gain prominence

B) To praise oneself

C) To confess without of reserve

D) To destroy before it blooms

E) None of these

Answer – C

30) To keep one’s temper

A) To become hungry

B) To be in a good mood

C) To preserve ones energy

D) To be aloof from

E) None of these

Answer – B

31) To catch a tartar

A) To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty

B) To catch a dangerous person

C) To meet with disaster

D) To deal with a person who is more than one’s match

E) None of these

Answer – B

32) To drive home

A) To find one’s roots

B) To return to the place of rest

C) Back to the original position

D) To emphasize

E) None of these

Answer – D

33) To have an axe to grind

A) A private end to serve

B) To fail to arouse interest

C) To have no result

D) To work for both sides

E) None of these

Answer – A

Direction (34-35): Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

34) DIVA: OPERA

A) producer: theatre

B) director: drama

C) conductor: bus

D) thespian: pla

Answer – D

35) GRAIN: SALT

A) shard: pottery

B) shred: wood

C) blades: grass

D) chip: glass

Answer – D

Assam DIrect Recruitment Grade 3 English Questions and Answers PDF Download Link

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